Fla vs UK end of game hard int foul not called-vs what happened to us with Dre

[ricks68]

Just watched a hard intentional foul with replays at the end of the Fla vs UK game. No intentional foul called. Just a one-and-one. The opposite of what happened to us-----even though Dre's foul was NOT really a HARD intentional foul. We all know that players are fouling on purpose at the end to force the winning team to make their free throws. So, why did Dre get called for his as an intentional foul, while that is an uncommon call in almost every other similar situation-----and it obviously wasn't even a hard foul? Does anyone have any additional info on what happened in our case and what actually happened concerning the technical? (Please just refer me to it if it is in another thread as I have been too overwhelmed to go over the post game thread.)

ricks

I think this needs to go in the thread started by Mountain_devil on referee complaints

[MCFinARL]

This is a good question, and at least on ESPN the rulings on this were never fully explained. I still don't know whether the foul was ruled intentional or not. I agree the calling of intentional fouls is usually reserved for either really hard fouls or late-game fouls, and Andre's was neither, although if I understand the rules correctly it's actually within the ref's power to call an intentional foul whenever the player is not going for the ball.

[Mtn.Devil.91.92.01.10.15]

The Raycom comentators dis a terrible job of explaining K's T, Sheed's T, etc.

[jipops]

Sheed earned his T. K did not.